TOP 30 MUST KNOW MCQS OF ABDOMEN, RECTUM AND ANUS

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1. What is the correct sequence of physical assessment techniques for the abdomen?

a) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

b) Palpation, Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation

c) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation

d) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion

Explanation: The standard sequence for a physical assessment is Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, and Auscultation. However, for the abdominal assessment specifically, the sequence is altered. Palpation and percussion can stimulate bowel sounds, leading to inaccurate auscultation findings. Therefore, auscultation is performed after inspection and before percussion and palpation to ensure accurate assessment of bowel sounds.

2. Which of the following is not a "P" in the 4Ps of abdominal inspection?

a) Prominent Vein

b) Pulsation Visible

c) Peristalsis Visibl

d) Pain

Explanation: The 4Ps of abdominal inspection, as listed , are Prominent Vein (Caput Medusa), Pulsation Visible (Aortic aneurysm), Peristalsis Visible, and Pigmentation (Cullen sign’s). "Pain" is a symptom that would be part of subjective data or elicited during palpation, not a visual finding during inspection.

3. When assessing for "DR GERM" in an abdominal assessment, what does the "R" stand for?

a) Rashes

b) Rebound Tenderness

c) Resonance

d) Reflexes

Explanation: "DR GERM" is a mnemonic used for abdominal assessment findings during inspection. As listed, "R" stands for Rebound Tenderness, which indicates infection.

4. What is the typical length of the anal canal?

a) 1-2 cm

b) 2.5 cm to 4 cm long

c) 5-7 cm

d) 8-10 cm

Explanation: the anal canal measures from "2.5 cm to 4 cm long".

5. Which position is preferred for a rectal examination in a male patient?

a) Lithotomy

b) Supine

c) Left lateral, or standing upper body resting on a table

d) Prone

Explanation: For a male patient undergoing a rectal to examination the "left lateral, or standing upper body resting on a table" are the appropriate positions.

6. What characteristic describes a normal prostate gland upon palpation?

a) Soft and tender

b) Enlarged and irregular

c) Firm & non-tender

d) Pulsatile

Explanation: a normal prostate gland is "round, heart-shaped, 2.5-4cm, firm & non-tender, and palpable on the anterior rectal wall".

7. In the "SAMPLE" history taking mnemonic for the GIT system, what does the "A" primarily stand for?

a) Abdominal pain

b) Anorexia

c) Allergy

d) Assessment

Explanation: The "SAMPLE" mnemonic for GIT history is: S- Sign & Symptoms, A- Allergy, M- Medications History, P- Past History, L- Last Oral Intake, E- Event to Presents. Therefore, "A" stands for Allergy.

8. Which of the following is a key reason for asking a patient to empty their bladder before an abdominal examination?

a) To enhance bowel sounds

b) To reduce the risk of infection

c) To avoid mistaking a full bladder for a mass

d) To improve patient comfort during percussion

Explanation: a patient should empty their bladder before an abdominal examination "so that you do not mistake a full bladder for a mass".

9. When palpating the abdomen, the nurse should begin with which type of examination?

a) Deep palpation

b) Superficial examination

c) Bimanual palpation

d) Percussion

Explanation: When starting abdominal palpation, the nurse should "Begin with superficial examination" before proceeding through the abdominal quadrants

10. "Caput Medusa" refers to which abdominal inspection finding?

a) Scars

b) Prominent Vein

c) Striae

d) Distension

Explanation: "Prominent Vein (Caput Medusa)" as one of the 4Ps of abdominal inspection, directly associating the term with prominent veins.

11. The presence of "Board Like" rigidity in the abdomen suggests:

a) Liver problems

b) Bowel obstruction

c) Bleeding

d) Muscular guarding

Explanation: In the "DR GERM" mnemonic for abdominal assessment, "R" is Rigidity (Board Like), which is associated with Bleeding.

12. Which of the following is not a major digestive enzyme listed as part of the GIT system?

a) Salivary Amylase

B) Pepsin

c) Insulin

d) Lipase

Explanation: Insulin is a hormone, not a digestive enzyme.

13. When inspecting the abdomen, what does "1D" refer to?

a) Diarrhea

b) Distension (fat, fluid, fetus, flatus and feces)

c) Dysphagia

d) Dullness

Explanation: The "7S and 1D" mnemonic for abdominal inspection includes "1D" as "Distension (fat, fluid, fetus, flatus and feces)".

14. What does the "S" in "WIPERS" for GIT system assessment stand for?

a) Symptoms

b) Setup Light, Temperature

c) Stools

d) Skin

Explanation: The "WIPERS" mnemonic for starting a GIT system assessment is: W- Wash Hand, I- Introduce Yourself, P- Permission/ Privacy, E- Expose area under Examination, R- Right Side Approach, S- Setup Light, Temperature.

15. If a red glow is absent during transillumination of the frontal sinuses, it indicates:

a) A normal air-filled sinus

b) A sinus filled with fluid or puss

c) Clear nasal passages

d) Improved air flow

Explanation:"Absence of red glow indicates a sinus filled with fluid or puss".

16. Which of the following is considered subjective data in a health assessment?

a) Discoloration of the skin

b) A patient's statement about pain

c) Blood pressure reading

d) Palpable mass

Explanation: Subjective data (symptoms or covert data) are "verbal statements provided by the Patient," such as "statements about nausea and descriptions of pain and fatigue". Objective data are detectable by an observer or can be measured.

17. The primary purpose of an "Initial Assessment" in nursing is to:

a) Collect data about an already identified problem

b) Evaluate changes in functional health over time

c) Provide an in-depth, comprehensive database, which is critical for evaluating changes in the client's health status in subsequent assessments.

d) Address life-threatening situations

Explanation: The purpose of an initial assessment is to "evaluate the client's health status, to identify functional health patterns that are problematic, and to provide an in-depth, comprehensive database, which is critical for evaluating changes in the client's health status in subsequent assessments".

18. Which of the following is a component of the "3 H learning skills" required for assessment?

a) Head (Cognitive)

b) Humility

c) Honesty

d) History

Explanation: Assessment requires "3 H learning skills (head, hand and heart)," which are further explained as Cognitive (Head), Psychomotor (Hand), and Affective/interpersonal (Heart).

19. What is the meaning of "Wellness" according to the provided text?

a) The absence of disease or infirmity

b) Is generally used to mean a healthy balance of a body, mind and soul that results an overall feelings of wellbeing.

c) A disorder of structure or function in a human

d) An abnormal, highly personal and subjective feeling

Explanation: "Wellness" as being "generally used to mean a healthy balance of a body, mind and soul that results an overall feelings of wellbeing".

20. In the nursing process, which phase involves "Analyzing subjective and objective data to make a professional nursing judgment"?

a) Assessment

b) Diagnosis

c) Planning

d) Evaluation

Explanation: Diagnosis is defined as "Analyzing subjective and objective data to make a professional nursing judgment (nursing diagnosis, collab-orative problem, or referral)".

21. Palpation and percussion are performed after auscultation when assessing the abdomen because:

a) They are less invasive techniques.

b) They can alter bowel sounds.

c) They provide more detailed information.

d) They are quicker to perform.

Explanation: Because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds, the sequence for assessing the abdomen is: Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, and Palpation"

22. Which of the following is a type of percussion used to reveal tenderness and commonly assess sinuses?

a) Indirect percussion

b) Blunt percussion

c) Direct percussion

d) Deep percussion

Explanation: Direct percussion" as the technique that "reveals tenderness; it's commonly used to assess an adult patient's sinuses".

23. When performing auscultation, which part of the stethoscope is used to pick up high-pitched sounds like S1 and S2 heart sounds?

a) Bell

b) Tubing

c) Headset

d) Diaphragm 51

Explanation: Use the diaphragm to pick up high-pitched sounds, such as first (S1) and second (S2) heart sounds".

24. The function of the nasal hairs is to:

a) Produce mucus

b) filter large particles from air.

c) Aid in smell

d) Regulate temperature

Explanation: Under "STRUCTURE OF THE NOSE," it states, "Nasal hairs: filter large particles from air".

25. What is the term for a small, pale, round, firm overgrowth or mass on the nasal mucosa, often seen in clients with chronic allergies?

a) Exudates

b) Epistaxis

c) Polyps

d) Rhinitis

Explanation: "Small, pale, round, firm overgrowth or masses on mucosa (polyps) are seen in client with chronic allergies".

26. Which salivary gland is located below and in front of the ear and empties through Stenson's duct?

a) Submandibular glands

b) Sublingual glands

c) Parotid glands

d) Wharton's glands

Explanation: "Parotid glands: Located below and in front of the ear empty through stenson’s duct inside the cheeks"

27. What is the purpose of bimanual palpation when assessing breasts?

a) To feel for surface abnormalities

b) To detect tenderness over organs

c) Its purpose is to palpate breasts and deep abdominal organs.

d) To elicit sounds from underlying tissue

Explanation: the purpose of bimanual palpation is "to palpate breasts and deep abdominal organs"

28. Which functional health pattern relates to a client's perception and management of their health?

a) Nutritional metabolic

b) Elimination patterns

c) Health Perception and Management

d) Activity exercise

Explanation: The list of "Functional health patterns" includes "Health Perception and Management".

29. What is a key principle when conducting a thorough physical examination related to patient communication?

a) Minimizing patient talking to save time

b) Explain the procedure

c) Using medical jargon to demonstrate expertise

d) Avoiding eye contact to maintain professionalism

Explanation: Under "Patient comfort and well-being," a key principle is to "Explain the procedure".

30. What does the term "Amenorrhea" refer to?

a) Painful menses

b) the absence of periods.

c) Heavy menstrual flow

d) Irregular periods

Explanation: "Amenorrhea" as "the absence of periods"

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